Unit 1  (Sample Exm1)

Stoichiometry

Unit 4   (Sample Exam4)

1.  This is perform to verify a hypothesis or theory.

a) Hypothesis b) Law c) Experiment d) Theory e) None

 

2.   "Conservation of Energy" is an example of  a(n):

a) Hypothesis b) Law c) Experiments d) Theory e) None

 

3.  How many experiments are required to prove a theory incorrect ?

a) All it takes is one. b) At least 5 out of 10 (50%) c)  Three quarter (3/4) ratification before a theory goes on to the Science President for approval. d) If a theory is proven invalid by an experiment, the theory can still be correct if the experimental conditions are changed. e) No answer

 

4.  Which of the following is an example of an observation?

a) A gas expands when heated because the gas particle are moving faster. b) A balloon shrinks when taken outside on a very cold day. c) A balloon is placed in an ice bath and then placed in a tub of hot water. d) A balloon will be poked with a sharp object at the end of class. .e) No answer

 

5. The first step in the scientific method is ______.

a) Using technology b) making observations c) forming a hypothesis d) doing experiments e) Proposing a theory

 

6. Which of the following is an example of a hypothesis?

a) Water boils at 100°C. b) Seeds are planted in moist soil. c) Plants need sunlight to grow. d) The seeds sprouted 10 days after they were planted. e) no right answer

 

7. When a match burns, heat is evolved" is an example of

a) An experiment. b) A theory. c) An observation d) A law of nature. e) No right answer.

 

8. Which of the following is not a step in the scientific method?

a) Experiment. b) Theory c) Natural phenomenon d) Observation e) all are part of the scientific method

 

9. "All matter is made of tiny, indestructible particles called atoms" is an example of

a) An experiment. b) A theory c) An observation d) Law of nature e) no right answer

 

10. You noticed that there is more traffic between 8 and 9 in the morning. This would be a(n)

a) Observation. b) Hypothesis c) Experiment d) Theory e) All of the above

1. Which of the following is a chemical?

a) Sugar b) Heat c) Light d) Noise e) A wave

 

2.  Which state of matter does not take the shape of its container ?

a) solid  b) liquid c) gas d) vapor e) none

 

3. Matter changes from one form to another but is never created nor destroyed is a statement of:

a) Law of conservation of energy b) Scientific method c) Uncertainty principle d) Law of conservation of mass e) Proust's Law

 

4. What is/are substance(s) which cannot be further divided by chemical methods?

a)  mixtures b)  salt water c)  compounds d) elements e) all can be divided

 

5.  Compounds and elements are both categories of:

a) Homogeneous mixture b) Heterogeneous mixture c) atoms d) substances e) all of these

 

6. The process in which gas turns to liquid is called:

a) sublimation b) evaporation c) boiling d) condensation e) freezing

 

7.  Bond breaking and bond forming involves what type of change ?

a) intensive b) physical c) chemical d) personality e) none

 

8.  In the list, which substance can be classified as a chemical?

a) salt b) sleep c) cold d) noise e) none

 

9.  Which is important in order to accumulate knowledge about our universe?

a) Chemcials b) Technology c) Science d) Mathematics e) none

 

10. Which in the list does not come with acceptable risk?

a) Nculear Technology b) Drug design c) Genome research d) Space exploration e) All come with risks

 

 

1.   How may significant figures should there be in the answer to the following problem?

a) 1  b) 2 c) 3  d) 4 e) none

 

2.  Which one of the following measurements contains the fewest number of significant figures?

a)  0.01003 mm  b) 100360 mL c) 1300 kg d) 1.00 • 10-4 g e) all are equal

 

3. The numerator and the denominator of a conversion factor is related by:

a) both numbers are equivalent to each other. b) both must have the same units c) when divided by each other it yields zero d) both must have metric units. e) none

 

4.   For a pharmacist dispensing pills, it is often easier to weight the medication to be dispensed rather than to count the individual pill. If a single pill weighs 0.65 g and the pharmacist weigh out 15.6 g of pills, how many pills have been dispensed?

a) 10 pills b) 16 pills c) 24 pills d) 50 pills e) none

 

5.  A nurse must administer the appropriate dosage of atropine sulfate to a 165-lb male patient. The dosage on the label of a bottle of atropine sulfate tablets reads 20 mg for every kilogram of body weight. If each tablet contains 0.5 grams of atropine sulfate, how many tablets are needed to give the correct dose to the patient?

a) half tablet b) 1 tablet c) two tablets d) three tablets e) none

 

6. In a Gap in France, you decide to try on a pair of French jeans. What does a waist measurement of 52 cm correspond to in inches ?

a)  43 in b)  32 in c)  20. in d)  130 in e)  none

 

7.   The prescribed injection of a drug is 0.17 oz. If the syringe measures volume in cubic centimeters, to what mark would you draw the drug? (29.6 mL = 1 oz)

a) 0.17 cc b) 5.7•10-3 cc c) 5.0 cc d) 29 cc  e) not enough info.

 

8.   The daily dosage of ampicillin for treating an ear infection is 100. mg per kilogram of body weight.  What is the dosage for a 22-lb. baby with an ear infection?

a) 1.0 mg b) 1.0 g c) 5.0 g  d) 500 mg e) none

 

9.  Which is equal to a nanometer ?

a) 100 Å b) 1•10-9 m c) 1•109 m d) 1•107 cm e) none

 

10.  In which of the following is the metric unit paired with its correct abbreviation?

a) microgram and mg  b) milliliter and mL c) centimeter and km d) gram and gm e) none

 

11.  Which one of the following measurements contains the most number of significant figures?

a) 0.01003 g b) 100360 g c) 100000 g d) 10.0 •10-3 g e) none

 

12.  Which is not an SI Unit?

a) gram b) mole c) sec  d) kilogram e) none

 

13.   Which is not an English unit?

a) Liter b) pound c) yard d) ton e) all are English units

 

14..  Which is a derived unit ?

a) seconds b) mole c) calorie d) kilogram e) none

 

15.  "m" is the unit prefix for:

a) mile  b) mole c) meter d) mass e) none

 

16.   A student calculatess a poblem on her calculator and the number 1570.2691 is shown on the display.  If there are actually four significant figures, how should she show the final answer ?

a) 1570 b) 1570.3 c) 1.570 •10-3 d) 1.570•103 e) none

 

17.  Which measurement is the largest ?

a) 300 K b) Boiling point of water  c) 250°F d) 75°C e) all equal

 

18. What is the  number of significant figures that should be reported for the mass of a sample which is obtained by taking the difference between the mass of a sample plus beaker (125.260 g) and the mass of the beaker (124.5805 g) ?

a) 6 b) 5 c) 4 d) 3 e) all equal

 

19.  Which of the following is the largest mass?

a) 4.1•10-6 Kg b) 22 g c) 8.2•10-9 ng d) 3•103 mg e) all equal

 

20.  In which of the following is the metric unit paired with its correct abbreviation?

a) microgram and mg  b) milliliter and mL c) centimeter and km d) gram and gm e) none

 

 

21.How many centimeters are there in 57.0 in?

a) 22 cm b) 0.0445 cm c) 145 cm d) 22.4 cm e) 140 cm

 

22. The measurement 0.0000043 m, expressed correctly using scientific notation, is

a) 4.3 e-7 m b) 4.3 e-6 m c) 4.3 e 6 m d) 0.43 e-5 m e) 4.3 m

 

 

23. Which of the following is the smallest ?

a) 4.0 e-6 b) 4.0 e-8 c) 4.0 e-2 d) 1.0 e15 e) 4.0 e-12

 

 

24. Which of the following conversion factors is a measured number?

a) 10 cm/dm b) 12 in/ft c) 16 oz/lb d) 25 miles/gallon e) 12 eggs/dozen

 

 

25. Which of the following numbers contains the designated CORRECT number of significant figures?

a) 0.04300        5 significant figures b) 0.00302       2 significant figures c) 156000        3 significant figures d) 1.04              2 significant figures e) 3.0650          4 significant figures

 

 

26. A researcher needed three samples of sodium chloride solution, each with a volume of 0.03510 mL. The total volume needed should be reported as

a) 0.105 mL b) 0.0105 mL c) 0.10 mL d) 0.1053 mL e) 0.1100 mL

 

27. The correct answer for the addition of 7.5 g + 2.26 g + 1.311 g + 2 g is

a) 13.071 g b) 13 g c) 13.0 g d) 10 g e) 13.1 g

 

28. Which of the following is the largest unit?

a) millimeter b) micrometer c) meter d) decimeter e) kilometer

 

 

29. The cubic centimeter (cm3 or cc) has the same volume as a

a) cubic inch b) cubic liter c) milliliter d) centimeter e) cubic decimeter

 

 

30. A conversion factor set up correctly to convert 15 inches to centimeter is

a) 100 cm / 1 m b) 1 inch / 2.54 cm c) 1 cm / 10 mm d) 2.54 cm / 1 inch e) 10 cm / 1 inch

 

1.  A patient provided a 5.000 cm3 urine specimen which weighed 5.125 grams.  What is the specific gravity of the urine?

a) 1.035  b) 0.975 c) 1.025 d) 1.000  e) none

 

2. Tequila has a density of 0.78 g / mL. What mass of Tequila will fill a 2.0 fluid ounce shot glass?  (29.6 mL = 1 liquid ounce)

a) 4.6•10-6 Kg  b) 46 g c) 8.2 •106 µg  d) 3•103 mg  e) none

 

3. Calculate the volume that 3.41 grams of liquid will occupy if it has a specific gravity of 1.025 ?

a) 3.40mL b) 3.45mL c) 3.50mL d) 3.33mL e) none

 

4.  Density of a substance may be classified as

a)  Physical property b)  Chemical property  c)  Molecular weight   d)  Volume e)  none

 

5.   Which statement about water is true:

a)  8 grams of water is more dense that 4 grams of water. b)  8 grams of water has the same density as 4 grams of water. c)  8 grams of water is less dense that 4 grams of water. d)  8 grams of water contains the same moles as 4 grams of water. e)  none of these statement is true.

 

6.  The specific gravity of a solution is 1.18. Its density is

a)  11.8 g / mL b)  0.118 g / mL c)  0.847 g / mL d)  1.18 g / mL e)  1.2 g / mL

 

7.  Diamond has a density of 3.52 g / mL. What is the volume in cubic centimeter of a diamond with a mass of 15.1 g?

a)  4.3 g cc b) 4.29 cc c)  0.233 cc d)  53 cc e)  53.2 cc

 

8.  Mercury has a specific gravity of 13.6. How many milliliter of mercury have a mass of 0.35 kg?

a)  0.0257 mL b)  0.026 mL c)  25.7 mL d)  26 mL e)  4760 mL

 

9. A nugget of gold with a mass of 521 g is added to 50.0 mL of water. The water level rises to a volume of 77.0 mL. What is the density of the gold?

a)  10.4 g / mL b)  6.77 g / mL c)  1.00 g / mL d)  0.0518 g / mL e)  19.3 g / mL

 

10.  Which one of the following substances will float in gasoline, which has a denstiy of0.66 g/mL?

a)  table salt (density = 2.16 g/ml) b)  balsa wood (density = 0.16 g/ml) c)  sugar (density = 1.59 g/ml) d)  aluminum (density = 2.70 g/ml) e)  mercury (density = 13.6 g/ml)

 

1. Which of the following is a property of a solid?

a)  It takes the shape of the container. b)  It fills the volume of the container. c)  The particles move at a rapid rate. d)  The interactions between its particles are very weak. e) The particles have fixed positions and are very close together.

 

2.  Which of the following is a physical property of both liquids and gases.

a)  has its own shape. b)  has a definite volume. c)  has strong interactions between its particles d) has randomly arranged particles e)  has large spaces between molecule

 

3.  The physical state(s) present when a substance is melting is (are)

a)  solid b)  liquid c)  gas d)  solid + liquid e)  liquid + gas

 

4.  The formation of a gas resulting from the escape of high-energy particles from the surface of a liquid is known as

a)  evaporation b)  deposition c)  boiling d)  melting e)  sublimation

 

5. When a solid is converted directly to a gas, the change of state is called

a)  freezing b)  melting c)  boiling d)  condensation e)  sublimation

 

6.  Which of the following does NOT involve a change of state?

a) melting ice b)  freezing water c) vaporization of alcohol d)  sublimation of dry ice e)  pouring water in a thermost

 

7. Helium is a(n)

a)  compound b)  heterogeneous mixture c)  element d)  homogeneous mixture e)  electron

 

8. The primary substances of which all other things are composed are

a)  molecules b)  compounds c)  elements d)  electrons e)  protons

 

9. Which of the following is a physical change?

a)  Baking a cake b)  Dry ice subliming c)  Fermenting grapes to produce wine d)  digesting a meal e)  a tomato ripening

 

10. Which of the following would NOT be a physical change?

a)  freezing water to make ice cubes b)  tearing a piece of aluminum foil c)  boiling water for soup d)  burning gasoline in a lawnmower e)  melting gold to make jewelry

1. The energy associated with the motion of particles in a substance is called

a)  temperature b)  electrical energy c)  heat d)  chemical energy e)  potential energy

 

2. The phrase "ability to do work" is a definition of

a) specific heat b)  energy c)  calorie d)  heating e)  cooling

 

3. The energy stored in the chemical bonds of a carbohydrate molecule is

a)  specific heat. b)  kinetic energy. c)  potential energy. d)  work. e)  a calorie.

 

4. In which of the following would the particles move most rapidly?

a)  ice at -20 °C b)  water at 20 °C c)  steam at 110 °C d)  boiling water e)  ice at 0 °C

 

5. A patient has a temperature of 38.5 °C. What is the temperature in degrees Fahrenheit?

a)  70.5 °F b)  311 °F c)  126.9 °F d) 101.3 °F e)  11.7 °F

 

6. How many calories are required to convert 17 g of ice at 0.0 °C to liquid water at 32.0 °C? The heat of fusion of water is 80. cal/g.

a)  43 000 cal b)  540 cal c) 1900 cal d)  1400 cal e)  80. cal

 

7. How many calories are required to raise the temperature of a 35.0 g sample of iron from 25 °C to 35 °C? Iron has a specific heat of 0.108 cal/g °C.

a)  38 cal b)  1.1 cal c)  3.8 cal d)  93 cal e)  170 cal

 

8. The number of calories needed to raise the temperature of 32 g of water from 12 °C to 54 °C is

a)  384 cal. b) 1300 cal c)  1.3 cal d)  1700 cal e)  0.76 cal

 

9. A kilocalorie of heat is required to raise the temperature of

a)  1 g of water from 14 °C to 15 °C. b)  1 g of water by 10 °C. c)  10 g of water by 10 °C. d)  100 g of water by 10 °C. e)  100 g of water by 100 °C.

 

10. How many calories are required to increase the temperature of 13 g of alcohol from 11 °C to 23 °C? The specific heat of alcohol is 0.59 cal/g °C.

a)  83 cal b)  0.63 cal c)  170 cal d)  0.54 cal e)  92 cal

 

11)  For the heating cooling curve shown, which letter labels the line segment that corresponds to pure solid ?

12.  For 1 gram of water at 1 atm, which process requires the greatest amount of energy ?

a) To raise the temperature of water from -20°C  to  -1° b) To raise the temperature of water from 20°C to 100°C c) To melt ice to liquid water at 0°C d) To boil liquid water to vapor steam at 100°C e) none

 

17.  The heat of vaporization for water is 540 cal / g and the heat of fusion for water is 80 cal/ g.  How much energy is required to take 5.0 grams of ice at 0°C to 100°C liquid water ?

a) 180 cal b) 500 cal  c) 900 cal d) 3600 cal e) none

1. A 2.5 g sample of french fries is placed in a calorimeter with 500.0 g of water at an initial temperature of 21 °C. After combustion of the french fries, the water has a temperature of 48 °C. What is the caloric value (kcal/g) of the french fries?

a)  14 kcal / g b)  11 kcal / g c)  0.14 kcal / g d)  4.2 kcal / g e) 5.4 kcal / g

 

2. A potato contains 20 g of carbohydrate. If carbohydrate has a caloric value of 4 kcal/g, how many kcal are obtained from the carbohydrate in the potato?

a)  5 kcal b)  20 kcal c)  40 kcal d)  60 kcal e) 80 kcal

 

3. A cheeseburger from a fast food restaurant contains 19 g of fat, 20 g of carbohydrate, and 28 g of protein. How many kcal of energy does the cheeseburger contain? (The accepted caloric values for foods are 4.0 kcal/g for carbohydrate, 9 kcal/g for fat, and 4 kcal/g for protein.) Report the answer to 2 significant figures.

a)  70 kcal b)  360 kcal c)  17 kcal d)  630 kcal e)  280 kcal

 

4. A serving of fish contains 50 g of protein and 4 g of fat. If protein has a caloric value of 4.0 kcal/g and fat has 9.1 kcal/g, how many kcal are in the serving?

a) 240 kcal b)  54.0 kcal c)  470 kcal d)  220 kcal e)  486 kcal

 

5. A diet has a total caloric intake of 1400 kcal. The diet consists of 50.% carbohydrate, 35% protein, and 15% fat. The number of kcal of protein in the diet is

a)  700 kcal b)  1200 kcal c)  210 kcal d)  460 kcal e)  490 kcal

 

6. One cup of kidney beans contains 15 g of protein, 1 g of fat, and 42 g of carbohydrate. How many kilocalories, to two significant figures, does this sample contain?

a)  60 kcal b)  88 kcal c)  230 kcal d)  240 kcal e)  520 kcal

 

7. The dietary calorie (Cal) is equal to

a)  1000 kcal b)  1000 cal c)  100 cal d)  10 cal e)  1 cal

 

8. What is the energy content, in kJ and kcal, for a piece of chocolate cake that contains 34 g of carbohydrate, 10 g of fat, and 5 g of protein? Round the answers of kJ and kcal to the tens place.

a)  196 kcal b)  580 Kcal c)  140 kcal d) 250 kcal e)  1050 kcal

 

9. A 2.3-g sample of butter, a fat, is placed in a calorimeter containing 1900 g of water at an initial temperature of 17 °C. After the complete combustion of the butter, the water has a temperature of 28 °C. Assume that the energy absorbed by the calorimeter is negligible. What is the energy value (kcal/g) and (kJ/g) of butter?

a)  9.1 kcal / g b)  21 kcal / g c)  87 kcal / g d) 38 kcal / g e)  no right answer

 

10. Suppose you go out to dinner, and you order the prime rib (24 g protein, 0 carbohydrate, 10 g fat), a baked potato with no goodies (2 g protein, 26 g carbohydrate, 0 g fat), a serving of broccoli (5 g protein, 10 g carbohydrate, 5 g fats), black coffee (0 g protein, 1 g carbohyudrate, 0 g fat), and a piece of carrot cake with creame cheese icing (5 g protein, 53 g carbohydrate, 30 g fat). How many Calories did you have for dinner?

a)  171 Cal b)  684 Cal c)  1344 Cal d)  909 Cal e)  No right answer

1. The fact that vitamin C extracted from rosehips and vitamin C prepared in the lab is the same substance is a statement of the:

a)  Law of Immutability of the Elements b) Law of definite proportions c)  Law of Conservation of mass d)  Law of Conservation of Energye) none of these

 

2.  The atom is the fundamental building block of matter.  Which individual did not directly contribute to Dalton's Atomic Theory of the atom ?

a) Lavoisier  b) Proust  c) Dalton  d) Democritus  e) Rutherford

 

3. Which part of the atom  was characterized by R. Millikan?

a) Nucleus  b) Neutron  c) Charge  d) protons  e) electrons

 

4.  Whose research explained the orgins of the atomic line spectrum for hydrogen ?

a) Dalton  b) Thomson  c) Rutherford  d) Bohr  e) Schrodinger

 

5.  Which element is found in its diatomic form in nature? (i.e., H2 is a diatomic molecule)

a) helium b) lithium  c) nitrogen d) sulfur e) none

 

6.  Two atoms of the same element which have different mass numbers are called:

a) sisters  b) brothers  c) daughters  d) isotopes e) none

 

7. A neutral subatomic particle:

a) protons  b) neutrons  c) electrons  d) orbital e) none

 

8. An 14C and 15N+  have different number of:

a) protons b) neutrons  c) electrons  d) orbital  e) none

 

9.  The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called the ____ ____ for the atom.

a) mass number  b) family number  c) electron number  d) atomic number  e) periodic table

 

10.  The sum of neutrons and protons in the nucleus of an atom is the ____ ____ for the particular atom.

a) atomic number   b) mass number  c) isotope number  d) number of mole  e) valence number

 

11. Carbon-14 (14C) is used to date artifacts.  The total number of protons, electrons and neutrons in this atom is:

a) 18  b) 20 c) 24  d) 26 e) none

 

12.  What information cannot be determine from the following atomic nomenclature: 15P

a) Z  b) A  c) # electrons  d) identity  e) all can be determined

 

13. The atomic mass of chlorine (Cl) is given in the periodic table as 35.453, yet no single atom of chlorine has a mass of 35.433 amu.   Which statement explains why the atomic mass of chlorine according to the periodic table is 35.453 ?

a) This mass represent the total mass of the proton, neutron and electron for 35Cl b) This mass is the weighted average of all the isotopes of the chlorine atom. c) This mass is incorrect and should be changed. d) At the atomic level even the mass is quantized. e) None of these statement is correct.

 

14.  How many electrons will calcium lose in order to combine with oxygen?

a) 20  b) 8  c) 2 d) 1 e) none

  

15.  In order to form negative ions from neutral atoms:

a) electrons must be gained  b) electrons must be lost  c) protons must be gained  d) protons must be lost  e) none

 

16.  He argued that electrons moved in circular orbits around the nucleus much like planets orbit around the sun.

a) Rutherford  b) Bohr  c) Einstein  d) Thomson  e) none

 

17.  An isotope of oxygen with 9 neutrons will have a value of A equal to:

a)  6  b) 8  c) 16  d) 17  e) none

 

18.  Isotope of the same atom have different number of what subatomic particle ?

a) electrons  b) protons  c) neutrons  d) photon e) none

 

19.  He argued that electrons have wave-like properties.

a) de Broglie  b) Heisenberg  c) Bohr d) Planck  e) none

 

20.  Which has the lowest energy ?

a) radio-waves  b) microwave  c) infrared  d) ultraviolet light   e) none

 
 

21.  An anion of oxygen with 9 neutrons and 9 electrons will have a charge of

a) + 9  b) -2  c)  +1  d)  -1 e) no of these

 

22.  Which photon  has the highest energy?

a) 800 nm  b) 500 nm photon c) Orange photon d) UV photon  e) energy of light is constant

 

23.  Atomic line spectrum of the atom has its origins from

a) electrons relaxing down to the ground state. b) electrons being excited to a higher energy state. c)  electron tunneling. d)  uncertainty principle. e) This phenomena cannot be explain by current theories.

 

24.  Complete the following table i) ? ? 209Bi3-  3-  ?   ?  ? ii) ? ? ? ? 111 75 73 iii) ? ? ?  2- 45 ? 36 iv) ? 210 ? 0 126 ? ? v) 79 198 ?   ? ? ? 76 vi)  ?  ? 14C-3  ?  ?  ? ? vii)  ?  ? ?Mg?  ? 13 ? 10

  

25.  State which individual (from selection) is responsible for the following: i)  First conceptualize the atom.   ii)  Though that matter was composed of earth, water, wind and fire.  iii)  Proposed the "Plum-Pudding Model Theory".   iv)  Performed the Oil drop experiment.   v)  Proposed the "Law of Conservation of Matter".
a) Thomson	b) Millikan	c) Zeno	d) Lavoisier,	e) Boyle
ab)  Rutherford	ac) Democritus	ad) Lewis	ae) Bohr	bc) Proust
bd) Empedocles	be) Dalton	cd) Bohr	cd) Heisenberg	de) Plamck

1.  An element with one valence electrons in its p-orbital is

a) Mg  b) Na  c) Cl  d) Al e) none

 

2.  How many valence electrons does the phosphorus atom have?

a) 7  b) 5 c) 15  d) 31 e) none

 

3.  Which of the following species have noble gas electron  configuration?

a) O2-  b) Si4+  c) P3-  d) N5+ e) all have noble gas configuration

 

4.  How many total electrons are in 59Co 3+.

a) 24  b) 27  c) 30  d) 56  e) none

 

5. Which of the following specie has one electron in its valence shell ?

a) O2+ b) Si4+  c) P3+  d) Ne- e) none

 

6.  The electron configuration for selenium is

a)  [K] 4s23d104p4 b)  [Ar] 4s24p4  c)  [Ne] 2s22p2 d) [Ar] 4s23d104p4 e) none

 

7.  The electron configuration for chlorine is

a) [Ne] 3s2 3p7 b)  [Ar] 4s24p7 c)  [Ne] 2s2 2p2 d) [Ne] 3s2 3p5 e) none

 

8.  If sodium is changed to its most stable ion, how many electrons will there be in the 3s orbital?

a) 1 b) 2  c) 4  d) 11  e) none

 

9. Electron always have different set of quantum numbers (different address) because of:

a) Aufbau  b) Hund's rule  c) Pauli exclusion  d) Uncertainty principle  e) none

 

10.  If sulfur is changed to its most stable ion, how many electrons will there be in the 3p orbital?

a) 2  b) 4  c) 6 d) 8  e) none

 

11.  Electron are placed in degenerate orbital with the same spin because of :

a) Aufbau  b) Hund's rule  c) Pauli exclusion  d) Uncertainty principle  e) none

 

12.  Which one of the following sets contains species that are all isoelectronic?  (Isoelectronic means having identical electron configuration).

a)  O, F, Ne  b)  C4+, N3-, O2- c) P3-, S2-, Ar  d) Na, Mg, A e) none of theses

 

13.  Which is the electron box diagram for the unstable aluminum anion Al 4-. Answer (d)

 

14.  Which one of the following orbital does not exist in the 3rd shell ?

a) s  b) py c) d  d) f  e) px

 

15.  Which of the following is the correct number of valence electron for Geranium

a) 1  b) 2  c) 4  d) 8  e) none

 

16.  How many electrons are in 193Ir ?

a) 193  b) 77 c) 116  d) none e) no enough info

 

17.  Which of the following is the correct number of valence electron for Helium.

a) 1  b) 2 c) 4  d) 8  e) none of these

Please refer to the following diagram for the series of  questions.

1.  For a given family, which arrow corresponds to the increase of shell for an element.

a) 1  b) 2  c) 3 d) 4  e) None

 

2.  Which set of arrows correspond to decrease in atomic size ?

a) 1,4  b) 3,2  c) 3,1  d) 2,4  e) None

 

3.  Elements with four electrons in its valence are found in which portion of the periodic table?

a) r  b) s  c) t  d) u  e) None

 

4.  Which set of arrows correspond to decrease in metallic character ?

a) 1,4  b) 3,2  c) 3,1  d) 2,4  e) None

 

5.  Which set of arrows corresponds to decreasing ionization energy?

a)  1,4  b) 3,2  c)  3,1  d)  2,4  e) none

 

6.  Which set of arrows corresponds to decrease in electron affinity?

a)  1,4  b) 3,2 c)  3,1  d)  2,4  e) none

 

7.  Elements with the outer most electron configuration  ns2 np1  are found in which portion of the periodic table?

a)  q b)  r  c)  s  d)  t e) none

 

8.  For a given period which arrow correspond to elements with the greatest tendency to become cations ?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3  d) 4  e) none

 

9. Within a period in the periodic table of the elements, the most nonmetallic element is found in what row.

a)  2nd b)  3rd c)  4th d)  5th e)  all are equal

 

10.  Which element in the VIA family is the most metallic ?

a) Sulfur  b) Selenium  c) Tellurium  d) Polonium e) none

 

11.  Which atom below is the most paramagnetic ?

a) N  b) P c) As d) Sb e) all are equally paramagnetic.

 

12.  What is the symbol for cobalt ?

a) Co  b) Ca  c) CO d) C e) none

 

13.  Iodine is part of which family?

a) alkali  b) alkaline earth  c) metalloids  d) halogens  e) none

 

14.  What is the atomic mass of Geranium according to the periodic table ?

a) 31.0  b) 32.0  c) 69.7  d) 72.6  e) none

 

15.  Which one of the following is one of the first 36 elements ?

a) Iron  b) Cesium  c) Tin  d) Iodine  e) none

 

16.  What is the symbol for carbon.:

a) Co b) Cu  c) Ca  d) C  e) none

 

17. What is the most stable charge for helium ?

a) +3  b) -2  c) -3  d) -4  e) none of these

 

18.  Which of the following would has the most favorable electron affinity ?

a) K  b) Br  c) Al  d) Cl e) none

 

19. Sodium has chemical properties most like:

a) cesium  b) magnesium.  c) chlorine  d) mercury  e) none

 

20. This element, in the 4th period, is a transition metal in which old pennies are made from.

a) zinc  d) nickel  c) lead  d) copper  e) none

 

21.  Which element is a metal?

a) chlorine  b) sodium c) argon  d) sulfur  e) all are nonmetals

22.  Which of the following would has the highest ionization energy?

a) potassium  b) boron  c) aluminum d) calcium e) all are equal

 

1. The product from the alpha decay of  23592U.

a) 23593Np b) 23994Pu   c) 23380Ra d) 23190Th e) 23692U

 

2.  The nuclear symbol of helium,42He, is also the symbol for designating a(n)

a) Proton b) neutron  c) gamma ray d) beta particle e) alpha particle

 

3. The symbol 0-1e is a symbol used for a(n)

a) Proton b) beta particle  c) gamma ray d) alpha particle e) neutron

 

4. Which of the following types of radiation has the highest energy?

a) α - particle b) γ - particle c) β - particle d) visible light e) all of these have the same energy

 

5. For 8538Sr, there are

a) 85 protons and 38 neutrons b) 47 protons and 38 neutrons  c) 38 protons and 85 neutrons d) 38 protons and 47 neutrons e) 85 protons and 47 neutrons

 

6.  Which is NOT a way to minimize your exposure to radiation?

a) staying a longer time b) wearing lead-lined gloves  c) wearing a lead apron d) keeping a good distance e) standing behind a thick concrete wall

7. A nuclear equation is balanced when

a) the same elements are found on both sides of the equation. b) the sum of the mass numbers and the sum of the atomic numbers of the particles and atoms are the same on both sides of the equation c) the same particles and atoms are on both sides of the equation. d) different particles and atoms are on both sides of the equation. e) the charges of the particles and atoms are the same on both sides of the equation.

8.  The nuclear reaction shown below is an example of what type of process? 22490Th → 22088Rn   + 42He

a) translation b) fission  c) fusion d) beta emission e) alpha emission

 

9. Nitrogen-17 is a beta emitter.  What is the isotope produced in the radioactive decay?

a) 186C b) 135B   c) 187N d) 178O e) 139F

 

10. What is missing in the nuclear reaction shown below? 105B  + 42He → 10n

a) a neutron b) 137B   c) 147N d) 135N e) 137N

 

11. When aluminum-27 is bombarded with a neutron, a gamma ray is emitted.  What radioactive isotope is produced?

a) silicon-27 b) aluminum-28  c) silicon-28 d) magnesium-27 e) magnesium-28

 

12. Sodium-24 has a half-life of 15 hours. How many hours is three half-lives.

a) 45 hours b) 60 hours  c) 30 hours d) 15 hours e) 7.5 hours

 

13. Iodine-123, which is used for diagnostic imaging in the thyroid, has a half-life of 13 hours.  If 50.0 mg of I-123 were prepared at 8:00 A.M. on Monday, how many mg remain at 10:00 A.M. on the following day?

a) 12.5 mg b) 6.25 mg  c) 3.13 mg d) 25.0 mg e) 50.0 mg

 

14.  A sample of cerium-141 for a diagnostic test was dissolved in saline solution to an activity of 4.5 millicuries/mL. If the patient undergoing the test needs a dose of 10 millicuries, how much of the solution should be injected into the patient?

a) 4.5 mL b) 22 mL  c) 0.45 mL d) 45 mL e) '2.2 mL

 

15. The recommended dosage of I-131 for a test is 4.2 microcuries per kg of body weight. How many millicuries should be given to a 55 kg patient? (1 mCi = 1000 μCi)

a) 230 millicuries b) 760 millicuries  c) 0.076 millicuries d) 0.23 millicuries e) 13.8 millicuries

 

16.  Which of the following is powered by nuclear energy ?

a) Amtrack trains b) submarines c) automobiles d) your brain e) none

 

17. Nuclear energy in this country is in the form of

a)  Potential Energy b) Activiation Energy c) Nuclear Fission d) Nuclear Fusion e) none

 

18. Which isotope is used to determine the age of artifacts (i.e., Shroud of Turin) ?

a)  Polonium-214 b)  Iodine-131 c)  Carbon-14 d)  Uranium-238 e) none

 

19. The following are produce by radioactive processes.  Which one has mass but no charge?

a)  alpha particle b) beta particle c) gamma radiation d) neutron e) position

 

20. The number of half-lives neeeded for a radiactive element to decay to one-eight of its original activity is (choose the nearest number):

a) 2 b) 3 c) 5  d) 10 e) none

 

21. Which is a common household item which emits ionizing radiation.

a) television b) coffee maker c) toaster  d) bathroom scale e) none

 

22. Alpha radiation is actually a dication of

a) carbon b) calcium  c) helium d) hydrogen e) none

 

23. Which type of radiation will completely go through your body and requires lead or concrete walls to stop its progress.

a) alpha b) beta c) gamma d) radiowave e) none

 

24. What is the name of the former USSR where the most disasterous nuclear accident occurred

a) Moscow b) Linengrade c) Chernobyl d) St. Petersburg e) Three mile island

 

25. The closest commerical nuclear power plant to San Diego is located

a)  Diablo b) Three Mile Island  c) San Clemente d) San Onofre e) none

 

26. In a nuclear power plant what is used to elevate the temperature of water above 3000°F without boiling it over?

a) catalyst b) Pressure c) uranium rods d) radiation e) large volume

 

27. Which is a common health problem because of dangerous radiation exposure ?

a) Acidosis b) a healthy tan c) Cancer d) greenhouse effect e) cardiac arrest

 

28. Electron capture transfoms 7Be into what nuclide ?

a)  6Li b)  8B c)  7L d)  6Be e)  12C

 

29. Identify the missiong particle in the following equation: 238U  → 4He   +  __

a)  242Pu b)  234Th c)  242Th d)  234U e)  none

 

30. What nuclide product is necessary to balance the following fission reaction:           238U  + 1n  →   3 1n   + 139Ba   +  __

a)  96Br b)  96Kr c) 94Rb d) 94Kr e)  90Sr

31. When 28Al emits a ß-  particle it becomes:

a) 28Mg b) 28Si c) 29Si d) 27Al e) none

32. A radioactive element has a hal-life of 1.0 hr.  How many hours will it take for the number of atoms present to decat to 1/16th  of the initial value?

a)  16 b)  8 c)  4 d)  15 e)  2.77

33. The smallest amount of radioactive material that will suppor ta self-sustained reaction is called the:

a) molar mass b) moderator c) supercritical mass d) sub critical mass e) critical mass

34. Which of the following is NOT TRUE of nuclear fission

a) High temp. are required for the process to occur. b) The energy released is very large. c) The starting materials are heavy elements like U or Pu. d) It happens in the hydrogen bomb. e) The mass of the system decreases when the nuclei fuse together.

35.  Give three arguments why a community would elect to build a coal burning power plant versus a nuclear power plant?

   

1.  A cation has more:

a) e- than p+ b) p+ than n  c) atomic mass unit than its atom  d) p+ than e- e) none

 

2.  Which element will combine with one atom of magnesium?

a) Ca b) Na  c) He  d) O  e) none

 

3.   Polar covalent are formed when the electrons  involved in bonding

a) are transferred from one atom to the other.  b) are equally shared between the atoms involved in bonding.  c) are excited to a higher atomic orbital. d) are unequally shared between atoms involved in bonding. e) none of these statements are true.

 

4.  Which of the following is an example of an empirical formula ?

a) C4H10 b) C6H12O6 c)  Sn2Cl4 d) C5H10O4 e) none

 

5.  Which is an example of a formula unit ?

a) C2H5 b)  Sn2O4 c)  d) sodium bromide  e) CaO

 

6.  Which elements when bonded to each other will from covalent bonds ?

a) argon & fluorine b) copper & carbon c) oxygen & sulfur d) potassium & cesium  e) H & Na

 

7.   Which substance is most likely to possess covalent bonds?

a) PCl3 b) KBr  c)  MgF2 d) ScCl3 e) none

 

8.  Which substance has ionic bonds?

a) Na2O  b) NCl3 c) H2S  d) CO2 e) none

 

9  Which compound has a total of 32 valence electrons ?

a) hypochlorite b) chlorite c) chlorate d) perchlorate e) chloride

 

10  Give the chemical name of the specie with the formula XY, where X is the element in diamonds and Y is the element which support life?

a) carbon monoxide b) carbon dioxide c) carbon  chloride d) silicon carbide e) none

 

11   What is the oxidation number of Sn in SnO2  ?

a) l  b) 2 c) 4 d) 5 e) none

 

12. What information about a chemical formula will always lead you to the correct type (I, II or III) of compound.

a) total electrons in the anion b) Identity  of group of the first element in the compound c) the family of the metal d) the number of valence electrons. e) none

 

13. Which is the correct formula for iron(II)nitride ?

a) Fe3N2 b) Ir3N2 c) Fe2N d) Ir(NO3)2 e) none

 

14. What is the oxidation number of Mn in MnO4- ?

a) -1 b) 2  c) 3 d) 5 e) none (+7)

 

15. What is the formula of the compound formed when  aluminum (Al) combines with oxygen (O)?

a) AlO  b) AlO2 c) Al2 O3 d) Al3O2 e) none

 

16. Which is the correct formula for dihydrogen monoxide?

a) O2H b) H(II)O c) 2HO d) H2O e) none

 

17. What is the correct name for (NH4)2CO3 ?

a) ammonia tricarbonate  b) ammonium carbonate c) ammonia (II) carbonate d) diammonium monocarbonatee) none

 

18. Which of the following has a  "+2" cation in its formula ?

a) CO b) Pb(SO4)2 c) (NH4)2S d) SnO e) none

 

19. Which of one of the following is not polyatomic ion?

a) oxide  b) sulfite c) chlorate d) hydroxide  e) none

 

20. Which of the has a (III) in its name ?

a) PCl3 b) O2F3 c) Cr(NO3)3 d) N2S3 e) none

 

21.Which is the correct formula for manganese(II) nitride ?

a) MgN b) Mg2N c) Mg3N d) Mg3N2 e) none

 

22. Which compound has a correctly written chemical formula ?

a) Mg(SO3)2 b) Fe+3(OH-)3 c) Cd3SO3   d) (NH4)3N e) SE2I3

 

23. Which transition metal has a (I) oxidation state ?

a) Hg2O b) KClO c) Au2(CO3)3 d) Pb(IO4)4 e)  none

 

24.  Consider the following compounds,  i -iv, below.  Which statement is true about these compounds ?
i) calcium bromite	ii) sodium bromate	iii) sodium bromide	iv) sodium bicarbonate
a) all the compounds are type I  b) all the anion are polyatomic c) all anions contain the bromine atom d) three of the four are ionic e) none of these statements are true

25.  Which of the following is the correct number of valence electron for Helium ?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 8 e) none

26.  What is the most stable charge for oxygen ?

a) +3  b) -2 c)  -3  d)  -4  e) Cannot be determine

27. Which anion, when  combine with hydrogen, will form bromic acid?

a) Br- b) BrO- c) BrO2- d) BrO3- e) BrO4-

 

28. Which chemical formula is correctly written ?

a)  diammonium carbonate b) potassium(I) phosphide c)  Tin2sulfide d) boron trihydride e) none

 

29. Which of the following will combine with one atom of tellurium

a) Fe (III) b) Ir(II) c) V (I) d) Se e) all of these

 

30. What is the formula of the compound  dicarbon  tetrachloride?

a) C4Cl b) C2Cl4 c) CCl2 d) C2Cl3 e) none

Consider the following matrix for the next few questions.

	hyposulfite	sulfite	sulfate	persulfate	sulfide
Carbon	a	b	c	d	e
cadmium	ab	ac	ad	ae	bc
cobalt	bd	be	cd	ce	de

 

31. Which combination is CdSO4 ?

32. If carbon is combined with one of the anion, which combination yields CS2 ?

33. Given a +3 oxidation state of this transition metal, which combination yields M2(SO2)3 ?

34. What compound gives CoS for an oxidation state of +2 to Co ?

1.  What is the correct Lewis dot structure for the chlorine atom ?

a)  b)  c)   d)  e) none

2.  Which of the following is a correct Lewis structure ?

a)  b)  c)  d)  e) none

3.   Which is the following is the correct Lewis electron-dot formula for HCN ?

a)   b)   c)   d)   e) none

4 .  Which compound has a Lewis structure in which there are three bonds ?

a) H2O b) CO2 c) NO- d) O3 e) none

5.  Which chemical has seven bonds ?

a)  C2H4 b) C2H2 c) C2H6 d) C3H6 e) none

6.  How many total valence electrons are in SO32-  ?

a) 24 b) 30 c) 32 d) 26  e) none

7. Which of the following specie has an odd number of electrons in its Lewis Structure ?

a) ClO- b) ClO2 c) Cl2O d) ClO2- e) none

8.  What is the total number of valence electrons for the Lewis structure for an ionic specie with the formula MX, where the atom M has 20 protons and X is found in the second period. ?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 28 e) none

9. The Lewis structure for NF3 is :   What is the electronic geometry of NF3?

a) trigonal b) planar c) pyramidal  d) tetrahedral e) linear

1.  Which arrangement is in order of increasing electronegativity ?

a) Cl, H, Br, C b) B, F, P, O c) Al, K, N, C d) Sr, Sc, Si, S  e) none

2. What is the VSEPR molecular geometry for O3 ?

a) trigonal b) pyramidal c) bent d) tetrahedral  e) none

3. Consider the imaginary compound XY2.  This compound is non-polar, yet the electronegativity of X is 2.5 , whereas the electronegativity  of Y is 3.6.  It stands to reason that the molecular shape of this molecule is :

a) bent b) trigonal c) linear d) pyramidal e) not enough info.

4. Which of one of the following is polar ?

a) H2 b) BH3 c) HCO d) BeF2 e) none

5.  What is the molecular geometry of hypophosphite,  PO23. ?

a) tetrahedral   b)trigonal  c) linear d) bent e) none

 

6. What is the molecular geometry of the H2CO ?

a) bent  b) trigonal c) pyramidal d) linear  e) none

7. Which compound below is nonpolar ?

a) CO2 b) CH2F2 c) NO2- d) H2S  e) none

8.  In the molecule CSO,  , the overall electron density is distorted toward which atom?.

a) Carbon b) sulfur c) oxygen d) no net distortion  e) none

9.  What is the molecular geometry of the sulfate ion ?

a) bent b) trigonal c) tetrahedral d) pyramidal  e) none

10. What is the molecular geometry of sulfur dioxide ?

a) bent b) trigonal c) tetrahedral d) pyramidal e) none

11. What is the molecular geometry of the F2CS ?

a) bent  b) trigonal c)  pyramidal d) lineare) none

12. Which type III compound is also takes a linear geometry ?

a) SO2 b) CS2 c) CaCl2 d) SnO2 e) CuOH

13. Which compound below is polar ?

a) CO2 b) C2F2 c) CS2 d) H2S  e) none

14. What is the molecular geometry of the nitrate ion, NO3- ?

a) tetrahedral b) trigonal c) linear d) bent  e) none

15. Which is most like to dissolve to an appreciable extent in water ?

a) CO2 b) CH4 c) NH3 d) N2 e) none

16. Sodium nitrate is considered a strong electrolyte because it-

a) contains a metal and a nonmetal. b) is needed for good health. c) conducts electricity. d) releases heat when water is added e)  is an ionic compound.

17.  Which set has compounds that have the same electronic geometry (AEn) ?

a) CO2 &  H2O b) CCl4 & NH4+ c) O3 &  N3- d) SCl2 & BeH2 e) none

1. Which of the following indicates very strong intermolecular forces of attraction  in a liquid?

a) Low boiling point b) low melting point c) low surface tension d)  high vapor pressure  e) none

 

2.  Which of the molecules shown below is capable of dissolving I2 (a nonpolar compound) to an appreciable extent?

a) PH3 b) CCl4 c) HBr d) HCN e) none

 

3. Which of the following would have a boiling point lower than SiCl4 ?

a) LiCl  b) CCl4 c) SiBr4 d) GeCl4 e) none

4.  Which of the following covalent molecules can hydrogen bond to water?

a) nitrogen N2 b) methane CH4 c)  ethanol C2H5OH d)  chlorine Cl2 e) none

5. Which of the following is not a special property of water ?

a) water molecules is capable of H-bonding.  b) water is a polar molecule. c) the solid state (ice) is less dense than the liquid form.  d) water has a very low surface tension. e) all the same

6.  Which of the molecules shown has its intermolecular forces dominated by dispersion forces ?

a) N2  b) CH3OH c) H2O d) NH3 e) none

7.  Which of the following forces between atoms, ions or molecules is the strongest ?

a) Covalent bonds b) dipole-dipole force c) hydrogen bond d)  London dispersion force e) none

8.  Which substance is the least polarizabe ?

a) Cl2 b) Xe c) Kr d)  Br2 e) all the same

9.  The evaporation rate of a given liquid will increase if :

a) the liquid is moved to a container in which its surface is very much larger b) the volume of the liquid is increase. c) the volume of a vapor phase is increased. d) the temperature is increased. e) a more volatile liquid is added to the given liquid.

10.  The sublimation of solid carbon dioxide, dry ice, is an example of:

a) evaporation b) physical property c) chemical property d) chemical change  e) none of these

11. The carbon tetrachloride molecule, CCl4, is

a) a polar molecule with polar bonds. b) a nonpolar molecule with nonpolar bonds. c) a polar molecule with nonpolar bonds. d) a polar molecule with ionic bonds. e) a nonpolar molecule with polar bonds

12. The main type of interaction between molecules of hydrogen ( H2 ) are

a) ionic bonds  b) dispersion forces c) hydrogen bonds. d) polar covalent e) dipole-dipole

1.  Predict the missing product in the following unbalance equation.  Mg + N2 → ___

a) MgN   b) Mg3N  c) Mg2N d) Mg3N2 e) none

 

2.  Which reaction below gives a balance equation such that the sum of the coefficient equals 10 ?

a)  HCl (aq) + Cr (s) → CrCl3(s) + H2 (g) b) FeCl3(s) + Na2CO3(aq) → Fe2(CO3)3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) c)  PbS (aq)  +  H2O2(aq) →   PbSO4(aq) + H2O (l) d) C4H10 (l) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + H2O (l) e) none

 

3.  Which equation below violates the law of conservation of mass?

a)    2CaCO(3) → 2CO2  +  2CaCO b)    4H2  +  2O2) → 4H2O  c)    2HCl  +  Na2OH  → HOH + 2NaCl  d)    AgCl  +   NaNO3  →   AgCl  +   NaNO3     e)    all of these

 

4.  Which reaction below gives a balance equation such that the sum of the coefficients of the reactant equals 5 ?

a)  C5H10 (l) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) +  H2O (l) b)  CoCl3(s)+ CaCO3(aq) → Co2(CO3)3(aq) + CaCl2(aq) c)  PbSO4(aq) + H2O (l) → PbS(aq)  + H2O2 (aq)  d)  HBr(aq) + Cr (s) → CrBr3(s) + H2 (g) e) none

 

5.  In a combustion reaction which is not a product ?

a) oxygen b) water   c) carbon dioxide d) energy e) all of these

 

6.  What is the sum of the coefficient on H2O and H3PO3 in the balanced equation ?  __PCl3 + __H2O  →   __H3PO3 +  __HCl

a) 2 b) 3  c) 4 d) 6 e) none

 

7.  What is the sum of the coefficient on Fe2S3  and HCl for the balanced equation ? __FeCl3 + __H2S  →   __Fe2S3 + __HCl

a) 23 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7 e) none

 

8.  What is the sum of all the coefficients after the following equation is balanced ?  __CO2 + __H2O  →   __C6H12O6 + __O2

a) 4 b) 24 c) 18 d) 19 e) none

 

9.  What is the sum of the coefficient when balancing the following equation ?  __  FeCl3  + __ AgNO3 →   __  Fe(NO3)3  +  __ AgCl

a)  3 b)  4  c)  6  d)  8 e) none

 

10.  When barium nitrate is combine with potassium sulfate a precipitate forms. What is the likely identity of the precipitate ? (Hint, determine if chemical formula is correct).

a) Ba(NO3)2 b) KSO4 c) BaSO4 d) K2NO3 e) none

1.  What is the formula weight of beryllium sulfate?

a) 41.0 b) 57.0 c) 105.0 d) 106.8 e) no answer

 

2.  How many moles of chlorine atoms are there in 1 mole of Ca(ClO)2• CaCl2?

a)  1 b)  2 c)  4 d)  35.5 e) none

 

3.  Which contain the smallest mass ?

a) 1.25 mol Na b) 0.236 mol Mg c)  0.11 mol Ba d)  3.75•1022 atoms Se e) all the same

 

4.  State the total number of atoms in a single molecule of C7H5NO3S (saccharin).

a) 2.93•1026 b) 1.02•1025 c) 17  d) 183.1 e) none

 

5.  What is the mass of a thimble of water which contains 4.0•1021 molecules?

a)  1.2 g b) 1.2•10-8 g c) 12 g d) 0.12 g e) none

 

6.  State the mass of oxygen atoms (grams) in a mole of C7H5NO3S (saccharin):

a) 16 g b) 48 g c) 183.0 d) 32 g e) none

 

7.  What is the number of oxygen atoms in 20 ammonium dichromate, (NH4)2Cr2O7, formula unit ?

a) 70 b) 1.20•1025 c) 140 d)  20 e) none

 

8.  What is the atomic mass of an element that weights 2.66•10-23 g

a) 16.0 g/mol b) 55.9 g/mol c) 12.0 g/mol  d) 4.42•10-47 g/mol e) none

 

9.  The compound MgSO4 is called Epson salts. What mass is needed to prepare a bath with 5.000 mole of Epsom salt ?

a) 0.04156g b) 24.06g c) 120.3g d) 601.5 g e) none

 

10.  How many moles of H atom are there in 18.0 moles of formaldehyde H2CO ?

a)  1.00 b)  2.0 c)  18.0 d)  36.0 e) none

 

11.  What is the mass of a single sulfur atom (32.01 g/mol)  ?

a) 32.01 g b) 16.0 g c) 5.33•10-23 g d) 4.42•10-47g e) none

 

12.  How many molecules of TNT, C7H5N3O6 (Mol. Wt. = 227.0 g/mol ) are in 5.8 moles of TNT ?

a) 3.5•1024  b) 21 c) 1.3•103 d) 121 e) none

 

13.  What is the mass of oxygen in 18.0 moles of formaldehyde H2CO ?

a) 540 g b) 288 g c) 18.0 g d)  576 g e) none

 

14.  Calculate the number of moles of aspirin, C9H8O4, in a 8.0 g tablet.

a) 4.4•10-2  b) 4.6•10-3 c) 4.9 d) 0.022 e) none

 

15.  A typical cholesterol deposit in an artery might have a mass of 3.9 mg of cholesterol (C27H46O).  How many molecules of cholesterol are in  this mass ?

a) 1.01•10-2 b) 1.01•10-5 c) 6.1•1018 d)  6.1•1021 e) none

 

16.  Which chemical has a molar mass of 180 g/mol ?

a) KI b) NH3 c) C2Cl6 d)  C6H12O6 e) none

 

17.  How many grams of N2 will be required to completely react with 9.3 g of H2 in the reaction:  N2 +  3H2 → 2NH3

a)  1.3•102 b) 2.0 c) 43   d) 3.9•102 e) none

 

18.  If it takes three wheels, one body, and two handle grips to produce a tricycle, how many tricycles can be produce from twenty wheels, twenty bodies and forty handle grips ?

a) 6 b) 6.67 c) 20 d) cannot be determined  e) none

 

19.  How many moles of Al are needed to react with 2.5 mol of Fe2O3 in the equation:  2 Al + Fe2O3 → Al2O3 + 2 Fe

a) 135 b) 2.0  c) 5.0 d) 1.25 e) no answer

 

20.  The number of grams of K2O produced from the oxidation of 4.0 grams of K in the reaction:  K (s) + O2 (g) → K2O (g)

a) 4.8 g b) 4.0 g c) 9.4 g d)  6.3 g e) none

 

21.  If it takes 1 plate, four forks, and three spoons, two knife and one napkin and to produce one table setting, how many table setting can be produce from 58 plate, 27 forks, and 33 spoons, 26 knife and 58 napkin ?

a) 11 b) 6  c) 13 d) cannot be determined e) none

 

22.  In the reaction :    NaOH  +  H2SO4 → Na2SO4  +  2H2O  How many moles of water is formed when 2.0 moles of H2SO4 reacts with exces NaoOH ?

a)  1 b)  2  c)  4  d)  6 e) none

 

23.  Calcium carbonate (MWt = 100.0 g/mol)  is common chalk.  How many grams of CO2 is produce if 100 grams of chalk is decomposed to CaO and CO2 ?

a)  100 g b)  50.0 g c)  44 g d)  56 g e)  none

 

24.  Which is the limiting reagent when 25.0 g of NH3 reacts with 25.0 g of O2  according to the reaction: 4 NH3  +  3O2 → 2N2  +  6H2O ?

a) NH3 b) O2 c) N2 d) H2O e) none

 

25.  How many grams of NF3 (71.0 g/mol) is required to produce 1.0•1024 molecules of N2  ?  The equation is:  2 NF3 → N2  +  3F2

a) 51.6 g b) 2.0 g c) 2.5•103 g d) 7.3•103 g e) none

 

26.  What is the actual yield in a chemical reaction if the percent yield is 87% for a theoretical yield of 55.4 g ?

a) 40.8 g b) 50.8 g c) 48.2 g d) 47.6 g e) none

 

27.  What is the percentage yield if the theoretical yield in a reaction is 60.4 grams but only 51.7 grams was actually recovered ?

a) 1.17 % b)  85.6 % c) 8.56 % d) 117 % e) none

 

28. Zinc will react with a solution of hydrochloric acid to produce hydrogen gas according to the reaction :  Zn     +  2 HCl  →   ZnCl2    +    H2     How many dozen hydrochloric acid will react with 10 dozen of zinc ?  1doz = 12

a)  240 doz b)  2 doz c)  10 doz d)  20 doz e) none

 

29. Tungsten W, is produced from tungsten (VI) oxide according to the following unbalanced equation:   __WO3 (s)    + __H2 (g) → __W(s)    +    __H2O.  How many grams of tungsten metal could you produce from 36.0 g of tungsten(VI) oxide? MWt:  WO3= 231.9 g/mol, W = 183.9 g/mol , H2 = 2.0 g/mol, H2O = 18.0 g/mol

a) 183.9 g b) 45.4 g c) 28.5 g d) 1.59 g e) none

 

30.   Use the balance equation shown to answer the questions below. Na(s) + Cl2(g) →    2 NaCl(s)  a) How many moles of Cl2 are needed to react with 3.5 mol of Na ? b) What mass of NaCl are produced from 1.75 mol of Cl2? c) How many mole of Cl2 is needed to produce 117 grams of NaCl ? d) What mass of Na is needed to produce 73.11 g of NaCl ?

Answers a) 1.75 mol of Cl2 b) 3.5 g of NaCl c) 1.0 mol of Cl2 d) 28.7 g of Na

 

 

 

1.  Atmospheric pressure is the lowest at which location ?

a) Denver, Colorado b) San Diego, CA c) Death Valley, CA d)  Manhattan, NY e) all the same

 

2.  Which law best describe the mechanism of breathing ?

a) Avogadro b) Gay-Lussac c) Boyle d) Charles  e) Medical

3.  Which postulate from the kinetic molecular theory explains why gas fill their container.

a) Gases are in random motion b) kinetic energy of gas is directly proportional to the temperature c) Volume of the gas is negligible d) As the pressure increase, the volume decrease. e) none of these are valid explanation

4. Which of the following is NOT part of the kinetic theory of gases?

a) A gas is composed of very small particles. b) Gas particles move rapidly. c) There is very little empty space in a gas. d) Gas particles do not attract or repel one another. e) Gas particles move faster when the temperature increases.

5. The force of gas particles against the walls of a container is called

a) Pressure b) Volume c) Demsity d)  Quantityu of gas e) Temperature

6. The boiling point of water at sea level is 100 °C. At higher altitudes, the boiling point of water will be

a) lower, because temperatures are lower. b) higher, because there are fewer water molecules in the air. c)  higher, because the altitude is greater. d)  lower, because the atmospheric pressure is lower. e) the same, because water always boils at 100 °C.

7. The balloon is put into a chamber whose pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure and at atmospheric temperature.

a) A b) B c) C d)  Not enough information e)  No right answer

8.  The temperature is changed from 50 °C to -150 °C at constant pressure.

a) A b) B c) C d)  Not enough information e)  No right answer

9. The pressure exerted by a gas on its container is directly proportional to

a) the mass of the individual gas molecules. b) the number of molecules of gas in the sample. c) the centigrade temperature of the gas. d) the Fahrenheit temperature of the gas. e) the volume of the container.

10. A barometer is a device for measuring __________.

a) atmospheric pressure b) blood pressure c) gas pressure in a container d)  gas pressure in the lung e) vapor pressure

1.  If a 1.5 liter flask at 1 atm and 25ºC contains 7.0 mol of carbon dioxide gas, how many moles of nitrogen will the same size flask contain if the temperature and pressure remain constant?

a) 4.5 mol b) 1 mole c) 7.0 mol d) 14.0 mol e) Cannot be determine

2.  What is the temperature of a balloon which contains 0.25 mol of gas, with a volume of 11.2 liters, and a pressure of 380 mm Hg. [1 atm = 760 mm Hg, R = 0.0821 (L•atm/ mol•K).]

a) 1653 K b) 273 °C c) 273 K d) 0 K e) none of these

3.  Determine the volume (L) of 0.250 mol of gas at 545 mmHg and 15.0°C.

a) 1.08•10-2 L b) 0.429 L  c) 8.24 L d) No answer provided e) none of these

4.  What is the molecular weight of a gas which weighs 6.40 g, at STP and occupies a volume of 4.48 liters.

a) 32.0 g/mol b) 16 g/mol c) 1.43 g/mol d) 0.700 g/mol e) Cannot be determined

5.  An anesthesiologist administers a gas at 20° C to a patient whose body is 37° C.  What is the change in volume (L)  of a 1.20 L sample of gas as it goes from room temperature to body temperature? .

a) 1.27 L b)  0.788 L c)  2.22 L d)  1.20 L e)  No answer provided

6.  Which combination of changes would produce no change in the pressure of a gas.

Volume Temperature number of moles a) double no change half b) half no change double c) double double no change d) no change half half e) no change double no change

7.  What is the pressure in a 10.0 L container that contains 0.240 mol of N2 and 0.260 mol of O2 at a T = 27°C ?

a) 2.66 atm  b) 14.8 atm c) 1.23 atm  d) 7.40 atm e) none of these

8.  Which of the following is impossible for an ideal gas?

a)  b)  c)  d)  e) none

9. What unit of temperature is used in gas law calculations?

a) degrees Fahrenheit b) degrees Celsius c) Kelvin  d) either degrees Celsius or degrees Fahrenheit e) either degrees Celsius or Kelvin

10. The volume of a sample of gas, initially at 25 °C, increases from 158 mL to 450. mL. What is the final temperature of the sample of gas, if the pressure in the container is kept constant?

a) 8.8 °C b) 71 °C c) -168 °C d) 105 °C e) 576 °C

11. In Gay-Lussac's Law, the pressure of a gas increases due to an increase in temperature because

a) the molecules strike the walls of the container less often. b) the molecules strike the walls of the container more often. c) the molecules get bigger. d) there is a decrease in the volume of the container. e) there is an increase in the number of gas particles.

 

12. A gas sample contains 4.0 g of CH4 and 2.0 g of He.  What is the volume of the sample at STP?

a) 17 L  b) 30. L c) 5.6 L d) 11 L e) 130 L

 

13. A diver exhales a bubble with a volume of 250 mL at a pressure of 2.4 atm and a temperature of 15 °C.  What is the volume of the bubble when it reaches the surface where the pressure is 1.0 atm and the temperature is 27 °C?

a) 1100 mL b) 580 mL c) 110 mL d) 100 mL e) 630 mL

14. A diver exhales a bubble with a volume of 250 mL at a pressure of 2.4 atm and a temperature of 15 °C.  How many gas particles are in this bubble?

a) 0.25 gas particles b) 6.02 x 1023 gas particles c) 1.5 x 1022 gas particles   d) 90 gas particles e) 2.9 x 1026 gas particles